I had IVF because my husband has severe male factor infertility. I find it a bit unjust and inaccurate that my medical chart reads like I am infertile. It defines me with "Infertility - other unspecified cause" and "Pregnant with history of infertility" with no mention of "due to infertile male partner" anywhere.
Is this the same for your medical charts? Of course, I count my blessings that I am pregnant. However, doesn't ICD-9 or ICD-10 have a more accurate definition? If I were with a fertile male partner, I likely would have conceived naturally. I feel misrepresented by these labels. Thanks so much for any insight!