breech baby equals no dialation/BH?

travnicek

With my first LO, I began having BH contractions from around 28 weeks and on. By the time my water broke at 39 weeks, I was 4cm dialated and 85% effaced. I know that the goal of BH contractions is for your body to prepare itself for labor/delivery, and that with every BH contraction, your body is working to become more dialated and effaced.

With this pregnancy, I haven't had any BH contractions yet. I also know that my baby is breeched (which is okay, because I have to have another c-section anyway). Could it be that because my baby is breeched, I am not having any BH contractions? I know this sounds like a funny correlation...so bare with me - I mean, because contractions help pull the baby's head further down the birth canal, etc, and because my baby is currently 'feet first' does that mean I might not have any BH contractions before my c-section (if she stays breeched)?

I might be connecting two things that don't go together at all! But, I had this thought and wondered if anyone had any insight!

Thanks!!!